TESTING & EVALUATION MCQS
What is the primary reason for assessment in a classroom?
A) To create instructional materials
B) To monitor student progress
C) To promote teacher evaluations
D) To design curriculum
What term is used for a systematic collection of information to make inferences about individuals or objects?
A) Assessment
B) Examination
C) Evaluation
D) Test
Why is it impossible for a teacher to test all course material in one session?
A) Due to students’ lack of interest
B) Limited time availability
C) Insufficient test preparation
D) Inadequate teaching techniques
What are the two main categories of tests?
A) Oral and written
B) Academic and non-academic
C) Objective and subjective
D) Short answer and essay
At the elementary level, which type of test is preferred due to students’ proficiency in writing?
A) Essay-based tests
B) Multiple-choice tests
C) Open-ended tests
D) Long-form tests
What is the purpose of formative assessment for both students and teachers?
A) To assign final grades
B) To evaluate progress
C) To determine instructional weaknesses
D) To establish a curriculum
What is pre-assessment or pre-testing primarily used for?
A) Assigning grades
B) Identifying previous knowledge
C) Evaluating instruction
D) Monitoring progress
How are grades typically assigned based on test results?
A) Randomly
B) Subjectively
C) Objectively
D) Indiscriminately
What decision can a teacher make based on test scores regarding student classification?
A) Educational level rejection
B) Placement denial
C) Category assignment
D) Admission refusal
What does a teacher learn from students’ test performance regarding instructional effectiveness?
A) Students’ future career prospects
B) Teaching limitations
C) Teaching competence
D) Students’ personal lives
Which purpose of a test primarily involves identifying students’ strengths and weaknesses?
A) Monitoring progress
B) Assigning grades
C) Evaluating instruction
D) Diagnosing learning problems
What is the primary role of tests in relation to modifying instructional design?
A) To ignore weaknesses
B) To maintain the status quo
C) To address weaknesses
D) To accelerate teaching pace
What is the primary aim of identifying students’ strengths and weaknesses before instruction?
A) To prepare a curriculum
B) To assign grades
C) To measure progress
D) To modify instructio
How do test results aid in making decisions regarding student selection?
A) By randomly choosing students
B) By rejecting low-scoring students
C) By categorizing students
D) By solely admitting high scorers
How does a teacher assess the effectiveness of their instructional activities using test scores?
A) By avoiding instructional changes
B) By retaining current activities
C) By modifying or discarding activities
D) None of these
What does formative evaluation provide to both students and teachers?
A) Final grades
B) Instructional feedback
C) Placement decisions
D) Admission criteria
Which type of test is preferable for elementary students due to their limited essay writing abilities?
A) Short answer tests
B) Essay-based tests
C) Objective tests
D) Long-form tests
How does monitoring student progress help a teacher in instructional planning?
A) By neglecting instructional changes
B) By continuously revising instruction
C) By adhering strictly to the curriculum
D) By avoiding test analysis
What is the primary reason for a teacher to understand the purpose of a test?
A) To implement a rigid curriculum
B) To avoid teaching modifications
C) To facilitate the teaching-learning process
D) To impose strict grading criteria
What does SOLO stand for in the context of educational taxonomy?
A) System of Learning Outcomes
B) Structure of Observed Learning Outcomes
C) Stages of Learning Objects
D) Sequences of Learning Outcomes
Which of the following stages of SOLO Taxonomy denotes a student’s ability to make connections beyond the given subject area?
A) Pre-structural
B) Unistructural
C) Multi-structural
D) Extended abstract
What is the primary purpose of achievement tests in education?
A) Assessing students’ general cognitive abilities
B) Measuring students’ aptitude for a specific subject
C) Evaluating skills and knowledge learned in a given grade level
D) Determining students’ social interaction skills
How are achievement tests different from aptitude tests?
A) Achievement tests assess general cognitive traits, while aptitude tests measure subject-specific skills.
B) Achievement tests evaluate specific learned knowledge, whereas aptitude tests measure general cognitive abilities.
C) Achievement tests focus on social skills, while aptitude tests focus on academic performance.
D) Achievement tests assess both general and subject-specific skills, whereas aptitude tests assess only subject-specific skills.
What do high achievement scores usually indicate in an educational setting?
A) The need for remediation
B) Mastery of grade-level material
C) Inadequate classroom instruction
D) A requirement for repeating a course grade
Which of the following is NOT considered a purpose of overall achievement testing?
A) Curriculum Evaluation
B) Assessing level of competence
C) Determining student aptitude
D) Achieving Certification or Promotion
What is the primary difference between summative and formative evaluations?
A) Summative evaluations occur constantly, while formative evaluations are done at the end of an instructional unit.
B) Summative evaluations assess students’ abilities, while formative evaluations evaluate teaching methods.
C) Summative evaluations focus on ongoing learning, while formative evaluations occur at the end of an instructional unit.
D) Summative evaluations test the total knowledge learned in a subject unit, while formative evaluations assess students’ abilities along with teaching effectiveness.
Which type of assessment allows teachers to constantly evaluate the effectiveness of their teaching methods?
A) Summative Evaluation
B) Formative Evaluation
C) Classroom Observation
D) Unit Testing
What does a low achievement score on an achievement test often suggest?
A) The need for advanced instruction
B) Mastery of grade-level material
C) Remediation or repeating a course grade may be required
D) Adequate readiness for advanced placement
What is one of the primary advantages of well-designed achievement tests?
A) Providing subjective evaluations
B) Offering results without reliability
C) Ensuring generalized and replicable results
D) Allowing biased assessment practices
How does aggregation enhance the usefulness of a well-designed test?
A) By reducing the need for standardized scoring
B) By limiting the information to individual assessments
C) By increasing error through smaller sample sizes
D) By providing useful information at group levels
Which step in designing an effective achievement test involves defining important learning objectives and considering their relative importance?
A) Writing the questions
B) Reviewing the test
C) Identifying learning goals
D) Interpreting the test results
What caution should be taken regarding the language used in test questions?
A) Make language ambiguous to challenge students
B) Use complex language to challenge language skills
C) Ensure clarity to avoid misinterpretation
D) Incorporate regional dialects to test cultural understanding
Why is it essential to avoid providing hints or clues to test-wise students in the test questions?
A) To challenge their test-taking abilities
B) To make the test more difficult
C) To maintain the test’s usefulness
D) To encourage critical thinking
What should test instructions focus on to ensure clarity for students?
A) Incorporating complex language
B) Lengthy and detailed instructions
C) Clear and simple language
D) Providing additional hints
What is the primary purpose of constructing questions that focus on specific understanding or abilities developed in a course?
A) To emphasize general intelligence
B) To challenge test-wiseness
C) To measure test-taking abilities
D) To assess course-specific knowledge
Which principle applies to the construction of both aptitude and achievement tests?
A) Complexity in question formulation
B) Using ambiguous language in questions
C) Emphasis on general intelligence
D) Clarity and precision in question formulation
What is the main objective of interpreting the results of a well-constructed achievement test using subtests?
A) To determine students’ inherent characteristics
B) To identify specific areas needing attention
C) To compare students’ knowledge of existing information
D) To assess students’ test-wiseness skills
Which type of test primarily assesses a person’s ability to learn new information rather than existing knowledge?
A) Achievement test
B) Aptitude test
C) Intelligence test
D) Personality test
What does perceptual speed refer to in testing?
A) The ability to memorize objects or patterns quickly
B) The capacity to accurately compare various stimuli rapidly
C) The skill of identifying individual components in a complex pattern
D) The capability to analyze and interpret complex data sets
Which of the following is NOT a use of aptitude tests as highlighted in the text?
A) Identifying strengths and weaknesses
B) Predicting job training performance
C) Evaluating academic achievement
D) Discovering hidden talents in all children
Which of the following is an example of an administrative use of aptitude test scores?
A) Assisting teachers in adapting curriculum
B) Guiding students’ career choices
C) Identifying the general aptitude level of a high school
D) Helping parents understand their child’s strengths and weaknesses
Which component of attitude involves beliefs and knowledge about a specific subject?
A) Cognitive Component
B) Affective Component
C) Behavioral Component
D) Emotional Component
According to the provided text, attitude is described as:
A) A mental and neural state without any experience
B) A complex mental state involving beliefs, feelings, and values
C) A rigid mindset unaffected by individual interpretations
D) A simple emotional response to specific stimuli
Which component of attitude reflects intentions and actions of an individual?
A) Cognitive Component
B) Affective Component
C) Behavioral Component
D) Emotional Component
According to the provided information, which of the following is NOT included in the description of intelligence?
A) Ability to think and solve problems
B) Understanding social values and customs
C) Emotional awareness and management
D) Analyzing situations and making judgments
What distinguishes verbal intelligence from nonverbal intelligence?
A) Verbal intelligence involves language-based problem-solving, while nonverbal intelligence focuses on visual and spatial problems.
B) Verbal intelligence deals with social interactions, whereas nonverbal intelligence involves academic skills.
C) Verbal intelligence measures memory, while nonverbal intelligence assesses creativity.
D) Verbal intelligence tests involve group assessments, while nonverbal intelligence tests are individual assessments.
What is the primary goal of intelligence tests as described in the passage?
A) Identifying specific cognitive disabilities in individuals
B) Measuring academic achievement and proficiency
C) Assessing a person’s intellectual potential
D) Evaluating emotional intelligence and social skills
Which type of intelligence test is generally not recommended for identifying a child with a disability?
A) Individual intelligence tests
B) Group intelligence tests
C) Verbal intelligence tests
D) Nonverbal intelligence tests
What may be included in individual intelligence tests, as per the provided information?
A) Timed puzzle and game-like tasks
B) Exclusively verbal question-and-answer sessions
C) Solely scanned scoring sheets for assessment
D) Only easel test books for pointing responses
According to the passage, what distinguishes verbal tests from non-verbal tests?
A) Verbal tests require learned knowledge, unlike non-verbal tests.
B) Verbal tests are more biased towards native speakers of the language.
C) Non-verbal tests measure spelling, grammar, and word meanings.
D) Non-verbal tests are more speed-oriented and don’t require reasoning ability.
What characteristic sets non-verbal tests apart from verbal reasoning tests?
A) Non-verbal tests measure spelling, grammar, and word meanings.
B) Non-verbal tests require learned knowledge for their solution.
C) Non-verbal tests assess comprehension and reasoning abilities.
D) Non-verbal tests don’t rely on language skills for their solutions.
What aspect do intelligence tests particularly help in predicting?
A) Emotional intelligence
B) Physical abilities
C) Academic achievement
D) Artistic skills
What criticism is mentioned regarding intelligence test scores in the passage?
A) The scores are heavily biased toward creativity.
B) They often measure everyday functioning accurately.
C) A single score fails to capture multidimensional abilities.
D) Intelligence tests perfectly predict non-academic intellectual abilities.
What is one limitation highlighted in the passage regarding the ability of intelligence tests to predict abilities?
A) They accurately predict creativity and social knowledge.
B) Intelligence tests capture the complexity of real-life situations.
C) The formats of many tests don’t measure everyday functioning.
D) Intelligence tests perfectly predict non-test intellectual abilities.
According to the passage, how is personality described?
A) A static set of traits that never change over time
B) A dynamic pattern of behaviors and thoughts unique to each individual
C) A set of behaviors only applicable in specific contexts
D) A fixed set of values and interests
What characterizes a self-report inventory in psychological testing?
A) It primarily involves observation by psychologists
B) It assesses past behaviors exclusively
C) It uses hypothetical situations to determine behavior
D) It presents questions or statements about qualities or characteristics of the test subject
What is a strength of self-report inventories mentioned in the passage?
A) They are susceptible to deception by test takers
B) They offer a deep understanding of past behaviors
C) Their results are generally more reliable and valid
D) They are lengthy and comprehensive, ensuring accuracy
What is mentioned as a potential weakness of self-report inventories?
A) They can be completed very quickly, often in 15 minutes
B) People are generally unable to hide their feelings and attitudes
C) Some tests are long and tedious, causing respondent disinterest
D) They solely rely on observation rather than the test-taker’s responses
Which type of self-report inventory is designed to identify a person’s ‘type’ rather than ‘traits’?
A) Myers-Briggs Inventory
B) MMPI & MMPI-2
C) 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire
D) The Big Five
What characterizes a Likert Scale?
A) It uses a forced-choice method with neutral options available.
B) It provides a symmetrical balance of positive and negative positions.
C) It measures only positive responses to a statement.
D) It offers an unbalanced ratio of positive and negative positions.
What is the fundamental concept behind projective tests?
A) They reveal conscious thoughts and desires.
B) They assess attitudes crafted by the conscious mind.
C) They uncover unconscious emotions and conflicts.
D) They use clear and defined questions for responses.
What characterizes the Rorschach Inkblot Test?
A) It involves describing ambiguous scenes.
B) It consists of telling stories based on images.
C) It requires participants to respond to inkblots.
D) It focuses on scoring needs and motivations.
What is the primary task in the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
A) Scoring responses based on needs and motivations
B) Describing ambiguous scenes with stories
C) Responding to ten different cards with ambiguous inkblots
D) Evaluating responses based on a scoring system
Where are projective tests most frequently used?
A) Academic settings for learning qualitative information
B) Therapeutic settings for obtaining qualitative information
C) Business environments for objective scoring
D) Clinical settings for quantitative analysis
What is the primary purpose of a norm-referenced test?
A) Assessing specific skills and concepts
B) Comparing students’ performance against each other
C) Measuring mastery based on pre-defined standards
D) Determining individual achievement based on norms
What distinguishes a criterion-referenced test from a norm-referenced test?
A) Measures specific skills and concepts
B) Compares students to pre-set achievement standards
C) Evaluates students based on broad skill areas
D) Ranks students’ achievement percentile-wise
What is a major advantage of criterion-referenced tests?
A) Provide a comparative analysis of students’ performance
B) Measure skills beyond designated curriculum standards
C) Enable tailored instruction based on specific learning goals
D) Generalize results across various courses or programs
Which is a disadvantage of norm-referenced tests?
A) Measure individual growth and progress effectively
B) Evaluate progress in relation to a fixed goal for the population
C) Provide insights into student performance across the country
D) Unable to gauge progress beyond individual comparison
In norm-referenced tests, what is compared, and how is the student’s score expressed?
A) Individual skills; expressed as a percentage
B) Broad skill areas; expressed as percentiles
C) Specific skills; measured against preset standards
D) Individual achievement; measured against curriculum goals
Which method of questionnaire completion involves the respondent completing the questionnaire without the presence of the researcher?
A) Open format questions
B) Structured interview
C) Postal questionnaire
D) Qualitative questions
What defines a structured interview in questionnaire completion?
A) Respondents are asked to complete the questionnaire in writing
B) Questions are open-ended without a predetermined set of responses
C) The researcher is present, and respondents verbally respond to questions
D) Anonymity of respondents is a key consideration during completion
Which statement best describes open format questions in a questionnaire?
A) Questions are pre-designed with specific response choices
B) Respondents have the liberty to express their opinions freely
C) Questions are structured for qualitative data collection
D) Anonymity of respondents is ensured during completion
Why might a researcher include open format questions in a questionnaire?
A) To gather specific statistical data
B) To restrict respondents’ answers
C) To encourage true and unexpected suggestions
D) To ensure a standardized response pattern
Which of the following best describes closed format questions in a questionnaire?
A) Questions that allow respondents to freely express opinions
B) Questions with multiple-choice answers
C) Questions designed for qualitative data collection
D) Questions that lead respondents to specific answers
How are leading questions characterized in a questionnaire?
A) Force respondents to choose between extremes
B) Present choices that encourage varied opinions
C) Guide respondents towards a particular type of answer
D) Include a wide range of response option
What purpose do importance questions serve in a questionnaire?
A) Collect statistical data and percentages
B) Measure the future intentions of customers
C) Rate the importance of specific issues on a scale
D) Track opinions across different groups over time
How do Likert questions aid in questionnaire assessment?
A) Assess the future buying intentions of customers
B) Provide only dichotomous responses (Yes/No)
C) Measure how strongly respondents agree with a statement
D) Use bipolar scale responses between two extreme answers
What characterizes dichotomous questions in a questionnaire?
A) Presenting bipolar choices for responses
B) Allowing respondents to freely express opinions
C) Asking respondents to rate issues on a scale
D) Providing only two choices for responses (Yes/No)
Which type of question typically asks respondents to rate the importance of a specific issue on a scale of 1-5?
A) Closed format questions
B) Likert questions
C) Leading questions
D) Importance questions
What characteristic defines a dichotomous question?
A) Provides a range of responses
B) Analyzes between multiple choices
C) Asks respondents to choose between two options
D) Ranges from poor to good in scale
How are bipolar questions structured in a questionnaire?
A) They ask respondents to rate importance on a scale
B) Include multiple-choice answers in odd numbers
C) Have two extreme answers at opposite ends of a scale
D) Assess the future buying intentions of customers
What characterizes rating scale questions in a questionnaire?
A) They offer only two answer choices
B) Present responses in a dichotomous manner
C) Respondents rate an issue on a scale, usually without a middle option
D) Assess respondents’ agreement with a statement
How do Likert questions contribute to a questionnaire?
A) Assess the future buying intentions of customers
B) Measure respondents’ agreement with a statement
C) Provide only dichotomous responses (Yes/No)
D) None of these
Which guideline is suggested for questionnaire formatting to ensure respondent engagement?
A) Keep demographic questions at the end of the questionnaire
B) Begin with less important questions to ease respondents into the survey
C) Place instructions and questions on separate pages
D) Make the first questions interesting and related to the survey’s topic
What is the primary advantage of using questionnaires for data collection?
A) Reduced bias
B) Complex data analysis
C) Reach a large number of people economically
D) Inability to gather quantitative data
Which statement is accurate about the arrangement of questions in a questionnaire?
A) Mix different types of questions within a single section
B) Begin with specific questions, followed by general ones
C) Place demographic questions randomly throughout the survey
D) Organize questions to achieve continuity and a natural flow
What is a potential limitation of using questionnaires for information gathering?
A) Reduced bias in responses
B) Limited choice of responses leading to insufficient valid information
C) Increased ease in correcting respondent mistakes
D) Availability of unlimited choices for respondents
Which instruction is recommended for improving the visual layout of a questionnaire?
A) Use a hard-to-read typeface for better attention
B) Cause respondents to turn pages between questions and answers
C) Avoid distinguishing instructions from questions and answers
D) Allow open space and use quality print in an easy-to-read typeface
What is one guideline suggested for effective classroom observation?
A) Engage in conversation with the children during observations
B) Keep personal possessions accessible to children during the observation
C) Avoid sitting on furniture like shelves or tables during observation
D) Discuss observations immediately with the caregivers
Which of the following is NOT listed as a valid purpose of classroom observation?
A) Description of instructional practices
B) Investigation of instructional inequities for different groups of students
C) Monitoring students’ homework completion rates
D) Improvement of teachers’ classroom instruction based on feedback
What is an advantage of using observation as a data collection method?
A) High cost compared to other techniques
B) Difficulty in gathering reliable data
C) Subject’s inability to provide information
D) High reliability of gathered data
Which is listed as a disadvantage of observation?
A) Task being observed is not subjected to interruptions
B) People tend to perform similarly whether being observed or not
C) Observation is inconvenient for the system analyst
D) Some activities may not reflect their usual difficulty or volume during observation
What is a recommended practice to maintain during classroom observation for the observer?
A) Engage actively in children’s activities to understand them better
B) Make assumptions about the observed without noting details
C) Keep notes and observations confidential
D) Repeat observations to ensure accuracy
What is an advantage of a structured interview?
A) Flexibility in question selection
B) Non-uniformity among interviews
C) Accurate and precise data collection
D) Lack of consistency and increased bias
Which interview type involves interviewing multiple candidates together?
A) Depth interview
B) Individual interview
C) Stress interview
D) Group interview
What is the purpose of a stress interview?
A) To analyze the candidate’s communication skills
B) To assess the candidate’s technical knowledge
C) To create a comfortable environment for the candidate
D) To observe the candidate’s behavior in a stressful situation
What does a panel interview involve?
A) Interviewing candidates one-on-one
B) A selection committee interviewing candidates
C) Asking candidates questions about their behavior
D) Assessing candidates through phone calls
What is a disadvantage of conducting interviews?
A) Collecting correct and accurate data
B) Low cost associated with the process
C) Minimal requirement of skilled interviewers
D) Involvement of systematic errors and high energy requirements
In which type of interview does the interviewer ask questions based on past situations to gauge future performance?
A) Formal interview
B) Unstructured interview
C) Group interview
D) Behavioral interview
When is a phone interview commonly used?
A) To conduct a stress interview
B) For initial prescreening or for non-local candidates
C) For interviewing multiple candidates simultaneously
For in-depth data collection purposes
What is the primary focus of a rating scale?
A) Determining if a behavior is present or not
B) Indicating the degree of accomplishment
C) Categorizing behaviors as yes or no
D) Assessing the quantity of a behavior
What type of scale involves a sequence of numbers to indicate the degree of a characteristic?
A) Graphic rating scale
B) Numerical rating scale
C) Behavior scale
D) Descriptive scale
Which advantage is associated with using rating scales?
A) Highly subjective data
B) Consistent descriptors for easy design
C) Ambiguous terms for reliability
D) Dependence on previous interactions
What is a disadvantage of rating scales?
A) Quick and easy completion
B) Objective and unbiased ratings
C) Highly subjective with potential for errors
D) Minimum training requirement
What type of testing measures performance relative to all other students taking the same test?
A) Norm-referenced testing
B) Criterion-referenced testing
C) Aptitude testing
D) Performance testing
In standardized testing, what does the 86th percentile mean?
A) The student scored 14% higher than others.
B) The student did better than 86% of test takers.
C) The student performed at an average level.
D) The test was 86% completed.
What is the primary focus of criterion-referenced testing?
A) Measuring performance relative to others
B) Assessing factual knowledge of a defined body of material
C) Evaluating abilities or skills important to future success
D) Determining how well a student did compared to the rest
What is the meaning of reliability?
A) Consistency
B) Trustworthiness
C) Stability
D) All of the above
What is reliability related to in a test score?
A) Stability and objectivity
B) Validity and objectivity
C) Validity and consistency
D) Consistency and variability
What does reliability depend on?
A) Degree of variability
B) Degree of validity
C) Degree of consistency
D) Degree of variability and consistency
What is the first step in measuring reliability scientifically?
A) Building a conceptual bridge
B) Establishing trustworthiness
C) Ensuring objectivity
D) All of the above
Which term is NOT associated with the characteristics addressed in reliability?
A) Dependability
B) Variability
C) Predictability
D) Reliability
What does reliability NOT address?
A) Behaviour
B) Machine performance
C) Data processes
D) Predictability
What is one of the most important elements of test quality?
A) Reliability
B) Validity
C) Consistency
D) Objectivity
What does reliability have to do with an examinee’s performance in a test?
A) Consistency
B) Validity
C) Objectivity
D) All of the above
What is reliability related to in a test score?
A) Stability
B) Consistency
C) Reproducibility
D) All of the above
What is used to assess the degree of consistency of a measure from one time to another?
A) Parallel-Form Reliability
B) Test-Retest Reliability
C) Internal Consistency Reliability
D) Split-Half Reliability
What is used to assess the consistency of the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain?
A) Internal Consistency Reliability
B) Test-Retest Reliability
C) Parallel-Form Reliability
D) Split-Half Reliability
What is used to assess the consistency of results across items within a test?
A) Split-Half Reliability
B) Internal Consistency Reliability
C) Test-Retest Reliability
D) Parallel-Form Reliability
What is used to assess the consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test?
A) Test-Retest Reliability
B) Split-Half Reliability
C) Parallel-Form Reliability
D) Internal Consistency Reliability
What is used to assess the consistency of the results using all the possible split halves of a test?
A) Kuder-Richardson Reliability
B) Split-Half Reliability
C) Parallel-Form Reliability
D) Internal Consistency Reliability
What is Inter-Rater or Inter-Observer Reliability used to assess?
A) The consistency of a measure from one time to another
B) The consistency of different raters/observers giving consistent estimates of the same phenomenon
C) The consistency of results across items within a test
D) The consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test
What is Test-Retest Reliability used to assess?
A) The consistency of a measure from one time to another
B) The consistency of different raters/observers giving consistent estimates of the same phenomenon
C) The consistency of results across items within a test
D) The consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test
What is Parallel-Form Reliability used to assess?
A) The consistency of a measure from one time to another
B) The consistency of the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
C) The consistency of results across items within a test
D) The consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test
What is Internal Consistency Reliability used to assess?
A) The consistency of a measure from one time to another
B) The consistency of results across items within a test
C) The consistency of the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
D) The consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test
What is Split-Half Reliability used to assess?
A) The consistency of a measure from one time to another
B) The consistency of results across items within a test
C) The consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test
D) The consistency of the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
What is Kuder-Richardson Reliability used to assess?
A) The consistency of results using all the possible split halves of a test
B) The consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test
C) The consistency of the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
D) The consistency of results across items within a test
How is Inter-Rater or Inter-Observer Reliability estimated when the measurement consists of categories?
A) By calculating the correlation between the ratings of the two observers
B) By calculating the percent of agreement between the raters
C) By calculating the mean of the ratings of the two observers
D) By calculating the standard deviation of the ratings of the two observers
How is Inter-Rater or Inter-Observer Reliability estimated when the measure is continuous?
A) By calculating the correlation between the ratings of the two observers
B) By calculating the percent of agreement between the raters
C) By calculating the mean of the ratings of the two observers
D) By calculating the standard deviation of the ratings of the two observers
What does Test-Retest Reliability estimate?
A) The consistency of different raters/observers giving consistent estimates of the same phenomenon
B) The consistency of a measure from one time to another
C) The consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test
D) The consistency of the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
What does Split-Half Reliability estimate?
A) The consistency of different raters/observers giving consistent estimates of the same phenomenon
B) The consistency of a measure from one time to another
C) The consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test
D) The consistency of the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
What does Parallel-Form Reliability estimate?
A) The consistency of different raters/observers giving consistent estimates of the same phenomenon
B) The consistency of a measure from one time to another
C) The consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test
D) The consistency of the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
What does Internal Consistency Reliability estimate?
A) The consistency of different raters/observers giving consistent estimates of the same phenomenon
B) The consistency of a measure from one time to another
C) The consistency of results across items within a test
D) The consistency of the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
What does Kuder-Richardson Reliability estimate?
A) The consistency of different raters/observers giving consistent estimates of the same phenomenon
B) The consistency of a measure from one time to another
C) The consistency of results comparing two halves of a single test
D) The consistency of the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
How is Test-Retest Reliability estimated?
A) By calculating the correlation between the ratings of the two observers
B) By calculating the percent of agreement between the raters
C) By calculating the correlation between the results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
D) By calculating the correlation between the results of the same test administered twice
What does Split-Half Reliability compare?
A) The results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
B) The results of two halves of a single test
C) The results of two different tests
D) The results of two tests constructed in different ways
What does Parallel-Form Reliability compare?
A) The results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
B) The results of two halves of a single test
C) The results of two different tests
D) The results of two tests constructed in different ways
What does Internal Consistency Reliability compare?
A) The results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
B) The results of two halves of a single test
C) The results of two different tests
D) The results of two tests constructed in different ways
What does Kuder-Richardson Reliability compare?
A) The results of two tests constructed in the same way from the same content domain
B) The results of two halves of a single test
C) The results of two different tests
D) The results of two tests constructed in different ways
What is the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula used for?
A) Estimating the reliability of the full test from the reliability of the half test
B) Estimating the reliability of the half test from the reliability of the full test
C) Estimating the reliability of the full test from the reliability of the parallel test
D) Estimating the reliability of the parallel test from the reliability of the full test
What is the KR20 formula used for?
A) Estimating the reliability of the full test from the reliability of the half test
B) Estimating the reliability of the half test from the reliability of the full test
C) Estimating the reliability of the full test from the reliability of the parallel test
D) Estimating the reliability of the parallel test from the reliability of the full test
What is the KR21 formula used for?
A) Estimating the reliability of the full test from the reliability of the half test
B) Estimating the reliability of the half test from the reliability of the full test
C) Estimating the reliability of the full test from the reliability of the parallel test
D) Estimating the reliability of the parallel test from the reliability of the full test
What is the primary reason for ensuring the reliability of tests?
A) Educational advancement of students
B) Job selection
C) Future decisions based on test results
D) All of the above
How does adding more homogeneous questions to a test affect its reliability?
A) It decreases the reliability
B) It increases the reliability
C) It has no effect on the reliability
D) It depends on the type of questions added
What is the effect of test length on reliability?
A) Longer tests decrease reliability
B) Longer tests increase reliability
C) Test length has no effect on reliability
D) It depends on the type of test
How does the method used to estimate reliability affect the reliability coefficient?
A) It has no effect
B) It can increase or decrease the reliability coefficient
C) It always increases the reliability coefficient
D) It always decreases the reliability coefficient
What is the relationship between the heterogeneity of scores and test reliability?
A) Higher heterogeneity decreases reliability
B) Higher heterogeneity increases reliability
C) There is no relationship between heterogeneity and reliability
D) It depends on the type of test
How does the difficulty level of a test affect its reliability?
A) More difficult tests increase reliability
B) More difficult tests decrease reliability
C) Moderate difficulty increases reliability
D) Difficulty level has no effect on reliability
How do errors in test development affect test reliability?
A) They increase reliability
B) They decrease reliability
C) They have no effect on reliability
D) It depends on the type of error
What is the relationship between the overall look of a test and students’ scores?
A) It has no effect
B) It increases scores
C) It decreases scores
D) It depends on the font size
How does test administration affect reliability?
A) It decreases reliability
B) It increases reliability
C) It has no effect on reliability
D) It depends on the invigilators
What is the role of test scoring in test reliability?
A) It increases reliability
B) It decreases reliability
C) It has no effect on reliability
D) It depends on the type of scoring
What is the most straightforward way to improve a test’s reliability?
A) Increase the test length
B) Calculate item-test correlations
C) Rewrite all test items
D) Change the method of estimation
What is usability in the context of assessment tools?
A) The ease of understanding the test
B) The extent to which a test can be used effectively and efficiently
C) The length of the test
D) The reliability of the test
What aspect of a test’s usability refers to its ease of administration and scoring?
A) Transparency
B) Security
C) Practicality
D) Reliability
How does transparency contribute to the usability of a test?
A) It increases usability
B) It decreases usability
C) It has no effect on usability
D) It depends on the type of test
What is the role of security in test reliability and validity?
A) It has no role
B) It increases reliability and validity
C) It decreases reliability and validity
D) It depends on the type of test
Which of the following is NOT a form of test?
A) Paper-and-pencil tests
B) Judgments by experts about behaviour
C) Physical tests
D) Work performance appraisals
What is the most important aspect of a test?
A) The form it takes
B) The way results are used
C) The scoring method
D) The number of questions
test validity means?
A) The accuracy of the test results
B) The reliability of the test
C) The appropriateness of using a test in a specific context
D) The ease of administration of the test
What is an example of a test that measures a skill not directly observable?
A) SAT
B) IQ test
C) Physical fitness test
D) Personality test
What is the relationship between reliability and validity?
A) Reliability is more important than validity
B) Validity is more important than reliability
C) Reliability is a prerequisite for validity
D) Reliability and validity are unrelated
What are the different forms that tests can take?
A) Written responses, judgments by experts, numerical scores
B) Oral responses, observations by experts, multiple-choice questions
C) Physical demonstrations, written responses, numerical scores
D) None of the above
What is the most important aspect of a test?
A) Its design
B) Its reliability
C) How the results are used
D) The number of questions
How can a test be inappropriate in one context but appropriate in another?
A) It measures different things in different contexts
B) It is used differently in different contexts
C) It is designed differently for different contexts
D) It is validated differently for different contexts
What does test validity explicitly mean?
A) It means validating the use of a test in a specific context
B) It means ensuring the test is reliable
C) It means ensuring the test measures what it intends to measure
D) It means validating the results of a test
Which test is an example of a written test result with a pass/fail outcome?
A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)
B) High school graduation test
C) Work performance appraisal
D) None of the above
What is the relationship between reliability and validity?
A) Reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity
B) Reliability is not necessary for validity
C) Reliability is more important than validity
D) Reliability and validity are the same thing
Which method of measuring validity involves evaluating test items against test specifications by Subject Matter Experts (SMEs)?
A) Content validity
B) Construct validity
C) Predictive validity
D) Criterion validity
What does content validity involve?
A) It involves statistical analysis of test results
B) It involves evaluating the content of the test
C) It involves comparing test scores with external criteria
D) It involves predicting future performance based on test scores
Which type of validity refers to the degree to which a measure is correlated with other measures that it is theoretically predicted to correlate with?
A) Convergent validity
B) Discriminant validity
C) Criterion validity
D) Content validity
What is the purpose of measuring validity?
A) To ensure the test is reliable
B) To determine if the test measures what it is supposed to measure
C) To compare different tests
D) To establish the difficulty level of the test
Which validity method involves comparing test scores with measures of job performance?
A) Convergent validity
B) Discriminant validity
C) Criterion validity
D) Content validity
What does predictive validity assure?
A) How well the test predicts future behaviour
B) How well the test measures current behaviour
C) How well the test correlates with other tests
D) How well the test measures intelligence
What is the purpose of concurrent validity?
A) To compare test scores with future performance
B) To compare test scores with other similar tests
C) To measure the current validity of a test
D) To predict future performance based on current scores
What does construct validity measure?
A) The reliability of a test
B) The theoretical constructs that a test is designed to measure
C) The content of a test
D) The difficulty level of a test
Which type of validity refers to the extent to which a test measures a particular trait or skill consistently?
A) Content validity
B) Construct validity
C) Predictive validity
D) Reliability
What is the purpose of discriminant validity?
A) To determine the difficulty level of a test
B) To ensure the test measures what it is supposed to measure
C) To determine if the test is reliable
D) To ensure the test does not correlate with unrelated measures
What are some factors that can affect the validity of a test?
A) Instructions, language structure, test length
B) Test items, ambiguity, test administration
C) Reliability, test scores, test content
D) None of the above
What is the relationship between reliability and validity?
A) Reliability is more important than validity
B) Reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity
C) Reliability and validity are the same thing
D) Reliability is not necessary for validity
What is the main objective of classroom assessment?
A) To obtain valid and reliable data
B) To measure student learning achievement
C) To determine if students are ready for instruction
D) All of the above
What is the purpose of pre-testing?
A) To measure student learning achievement
B) To determine if students have prerequisite skills
C) To provide feedback for students and teachers
D) To monitor learning progress
What should be done before developing an effective test?
A) Determine if a test is the appropriate type of assessment
B) Determine the length of the test
C) Determine the number of items for each learning outcome
D) None of the above
What is the first stage of developing a test?
A) Planning the test content and length
B) Writing the test questions
C) Administering the test
D) Grading the test
What is the purpose of a blueprint or test specifications?
A) To assign weights to learning outcomes
B) To determine the number of items for each learning outcome
C) To structure the test based on learning outcomes
D) All of the above
What are item specifications?
A) Descriptions of the items used in a test
B) Samples of the tasks to be produced in a test
C) Information on how the items and tasks are presented
D) All of the above
What is the purpose of the presentation model in test specifications?
A) To provide information on how items and tasks are presented
B) To describe the test format
C) To specify the number of items for each learning outcome
D) None of the above
What is the purpose of the assembly model in test specifications?
A) To provide information on how the test is delivered
B) To combine test items and tasks to develop a test format
C) To describe the test format
D) None of the above
What is the purpose of the delivery model in test specifications?
A) To provide information on how the test is delivered
B) To describe the test format
C) To specify the number of items for each learning outcome
D) None of the above
What is the relationship between reliability and validity?
A) Reliability is more important than validity
B) Reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity
C) Reliability and validity are the same thing
D) Reliability is not necessary for validity
What is the main objective of classroom assessment?
A) To obtain valid and reliable data
B) To measure student learning achievement
C) To determine if students are ready for instruction
D) All of the above
What is the purpose of pre-testing?
A) To measure student learning achievement
B) To determine if students have prerequisite skills
C) To provide feedback for students and teachers
D) To monitor learning progress
What should be done before developing an effective test?
A) Determine if a test is the appropriate type of assessment
B) Determine the length of the test
C) Determine the number of items for each learning outcome
D) None of the above
What is the first stage of developing a test?
A) Planning the test content and length
B) Writing the test questions
C) Administering the test
D) Grading the test
What is the purpose of a blueprint or test specifications?
A) To assign weights to learning outcomes
B) To determine the number of items for each learning outcome
C) To structure the test based on learning outcomes
D) All of the above
What are item specifications?
A) Descriptions of the items used in a test
B) Samples of the tasks to be produced in a test
C) Information on how the items and tasks are presented
D) All of the above
What is the purpose of the presentation model in test specifications?
A) To provide information on how items and tasks are presented
B) To describe the test format
C) To specify the number of items for each learning outcome
D) None of the above
What is the purpose of the assembly model in test specifications?
A) To provide information on how the test is delivered
B) To combine test items and tasks to develop a test format
C) To describe the test format
D) None of the above
What is the purpose of the delivery model in test specifications?
A) To provide information on how the test is delivered
B) To describe the test format
C) To specify the number of items for each learning outcome
D) None of the above
What is the relationship between reliability and validity?
A) Reliability is more important than validity
B) Reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity
C) Reliability and validity are the same thing
D) Reliability is not necessary for validity
